I am using BW 2011

A customer sent a check for an invoice that had already been paid when I called them they wanted me to issue them a credit. The amount of the check was the same amount for an invoice that I was just about to write up for this same customer so I told them I would apply the check to this future invoice, wrote up the invoice, and paid it using the open credit that I just issued. But now I have a check with nothing to post it to. I do not issue many credits so the correct process isn’t very clear to me.

What I ended up doing was reverting BW before I wrote up the invoice and created a debit memo to cancel out the credit memo and then wrote the invoice again and paid it using the check.

Everything worked out and I don’t think doing it this way affected my accounts or reports but I know there is a smarter way to do this and would like to know what it is for future use.

Thank you